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Revelations Too
Subject:  Re: Why did John baptize Jesus?
Dear rerun,

Aaron and his descendants functioned and were to continue to function in perpetuity in the capacity of priests in the levitical order of the priesthood. Nowhere in Exodus 29 is it stated that Aaron was the “High priest”.

Further I don’t believe you can find anywhere where Aaron is consecrated as a “High priest” after the higher priesthood order.

Exodus 29:9 And thou shalt gird them with girdles, Aaron and his sons, and put the bonnets on them: and the priest's office shall be theirs for a perpetual statute: and thou shalt consecrate Aaron and his sons.

Exodus 29:29 And the holy garments of Aaron shall be his sons' after him, to be anointed therein, and to be consecrated in them.
29:30 And that son that is priest in his stead shall put them on seven days, when he cometh into the tabernacle of the congregation to minister in the holy place.
Exodus 30:30 And thou shalt anoint Aaron and his sons, and consecrate them, that they may minister unto me in the priest's office.

moleowner
Subject:  Re: Why did John baptize Jesus?
Quote: › Hey guy's,

Why would you want to avoid mole's almost last point? "Even more so with his mother who never sinned because of her Immaculate concep......errr forget the last point I was about to make."

Was Mary sinless? Can you explain this doctrine and it's source(s) and how it originated?

Thanks for your help.


Rev2
We are talking about the Roman Catholic theological theory of the "Immaculate conception" announced in 1854 .It states that Mary was born without origonal sin,and many believe she didn't sin after her birth.

Rerun .
You may have to bow to Rev2's knowledge of the Melchezidek and Aaronaic priesthoods .He may have inside knowledge of the topic ,if you know what I mean :wink:

Revelations Too
Subject:  Re: Why did John baptize Jesus?
moleowner,

I understand your explanation. However I was just curious to know if rerun accepted the RC doctrine regarding Mary's sinless status.

moleowner
Subject:  Re: Why did John baptize Jesus?
I'll bet you 50 cents and 5 hail marys that he doesn't.

rerun7378
Subject:  Re: Why did John baptize Jesus?
RT,

Quote: › Further I don’t believe you can find anywhere where Aaron is consecrated as a “High priest” after the higher priesthood order.


It is in the OT. Unless you mean the order of Melchizedek. Only Aaron and his descendants are to serve before the Lord in the Holy of Holies.

Then, the Levites were to serve in the rest of the Temple.

Mole,

Quote: › You may have to bow to Rev2's knowledge of the Melchezidek and Aaronaic priesthoods .He may have inside knowledge of the topic ,if you know what I mean


According to the OT, I don't think so. According to the LDS, I certainly know what you mean.

Quote: › I'll bet you 50 cents and 5 hail marys that he doesn't.


Up the ante Mole. You will win.

There is zero scriptural support for this doctrine.

It was made up by the RC "voice" for God.

See what trouble you can get into, purportedly speaking for God?

Rerun

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