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moleowner
Sun Jun 20, 2010 4:05 pm

Re: Why did John baptize Jesus?
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Hey guy's, 

Why would you want to avoid mole's almost last point? "Even more so with his mother who never sinned because of her Immaculate concep......errr forget the last point I was about to make." 

Was Mary sinless? Can you explain this doctrine and it's source(s) and how it originated? 

Thanks for your help.

Rev2 
We are talking about the Roman Catholic theological theory of the "Immaculate conception" announced in 1854 .It states that Mary was born without origonal sin,and many believe she didn't sin after her birth.

Rerun .
You may have to bow to Rev2's knowledge of the Melchezidek and Aaronaic priesthoods .He may have inside knowledge of the topic ,if you know what I mean  :wink: